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Martin is a 73 y/o male who has a 50 pack/year history of smoking and comes to the clinic for his annual physical. As you are leading him back to the exam room you note that he has dyspnea with minimal cough, a barrel chest, and appears to have lost weight since his last visit. Your physical exam confirms a 20 lb. weight loss and more noticeable pursed lip breathing. Your diagnosis is:
Oral contraceptives can be started anytime in the menstrual cycle.
Risk factors for Alcohol Use Disorder include which of the following?
Stressful life events
Low socioeconomic status
All of the above
A & B only
Mary is a new mother who was tested HBsAG+ during her prenatal screening process. Upon the birth of her infant, the newborn should be given HBIG and Hep B within:
12 hours of birth
24 hours of birth
36 hours of birth
48 hours of birth
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Sal is a 56 y/o male who the NP has seen on many occasions in the clinic. During her physical exam of the heart, the NP notices that he has a new mitral regurgitation murmur that is described as a Grade II. She notes that his murmur is associated with which part of the cardiac cycle?
None of the above
Antipsychotics lead to an increased risk of metabolic syndrome.
Judy, a 28 y/o, presents to the clinic with a fever, vaginal discharge, and pain in the lower abdomen, pelvis, and lower back. These symptoms are accompanied by chills, nausea, and vomiting. Treatment for Judy’s condition would include all the following drugs except:
A patient with type 2 DM should have an eye exam for diabetic retinopathy every
The average age range of the beginning of natural menopause is:
All of the following are characteristic of the S4 heart sound except
Normal finding in some healthy elderly
Occurs during systole
Best heard at apex of the heart
Best heard with bell of stethoscope
Artie, a 36 y/o male, comes to the clinic with chief complaint of: intermittent flank one side flank pain. The pain is an 8 on a scale of 1–10, with 10 being the worst pain he has ever felt. He states the pain lasts from 20–60 minutes and that he must either stand or walk when the pain hits. He also notes that he has blood in his urine. All of the following could be risk factors for Artie except:
Family history of identical condition
Low fluid intake
A & B only
Serum creatinine is a better measure of renal function than BUN.
An S3 heart sound is considered abnormal if it occurs after the age of 35–40 years of age.
Juan, an 82 y/o male, is brought to the clinic by his daughter with LLQ pain, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Palpation of the abdomen reveals a positive rebound tenderness, positive Rovsing’s sign, and rigid abdomen. The NP in Juan’s case should:
Refer to ER
Try an antiemetic
Send for a CAT scan
Randy is a 29 y/o African American male who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30, does not exercise, and has evidence of metabolic syndrome. The first line treatment for Randy’s diagnosis would be:
Artie, a 36 y/o male, comes to the clinic with chief complaint of: intermittent flank one side flank pain. The pain is an 8 on a scale of 1–10, with 10 being the worst pain he has ever felt. He states the pain lasts from 20–60 minutes and that he must either stand or walk when the pain hits. He also notes that he has blood in his urine. Treatment of Artie’s condition would involve avoiding which of the following foods:
All of the above
All of the above except D
Martin is a 73 y/o male who has a 50 pack/year history of smoking and comes to the clinic for his annual physical. As you are leading him back to the exam room you note that he has dyspnea with minimal cough, a barrel chest, and appears to have lost weight since his last visit. Your physical exam confirms a 20 lb. weight loss and more noticeable pursed lip breathing. Given Martin’s condition, the first line treatment would be all the following except:
In treating patients for depression, the first line pharmacological treatment would be:
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
Hyperprolactinemia can be a sign of pituitary adenoma.
Menopause is associated with a dramatic decline in estrogen levels.
The most common drug trigger for Stevens-Johnson Syndrome include all the following except:
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